Author Topic: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE  (Read 18098 times)

Offline The SMA

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #135 on: June 08, 2010, 09:32:12 am »
need help m/j 2007 p2 Q6b

Offline astarmathsandphysics

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #136 on: June 08, 2010, 10:07:30 am »
To find the dross section area of metal

Offline sizbeauty

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #137 on: June 08, 2010, 10:34:30 am »
hey can sm1 plz tell me tht in nov09/variant 22,q4(partc2(ii))
frm where did v get 0.0362????
2 ?ES = ½ × 1.8 × 10-2 ( 0.0362 – 0.0212)
= 0.077 J


plz sm1 help me!!!! ??? ??? ???

Offline sabrina

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #138 on: June 08, 2010, 10:37:57 am »
hi
i have doubt in O/N2009 var2
q2bi
shouldn't it be like
for 10.7= 6*10^23
      1   = x
n then cross multiply?
i have attached the paper

Offline sabrina

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #139 on: June 08, 2010, 10:40:17 am »
n also the separation one. someone plz explain

Offline sizbeauty

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #140 on: June 08, 2010, 10:50:44 am »
@ sabrina,
nopz u did it wrong way,
it shuld b lik if for 6*10^23 atoms,u hav 10.7cm^3 vol
so for 1 atom,it shuld b x cm^3 vol..i.e
6*10^23=10.7
1=x
and thn u can get ur ans by cross multipling n for separation,whnver v r givn the vol,v take the cube root of it so it would b (1.78 x 10^-23)1/3 =2.61 x10^-8
hope it helped :)

cn u plz luk at ma ques???

Offline ruby92

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #141 on: June 08, 2010, 11:17:33 am »
m/j 2007
2 d

Offline The SMA

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #142 on: June 08, 2010, 11:18:46 am »
m/j 2006 p2 Q6b), why do we need to times 2 the wavelength, using v=f x lambda
and for part a) how to draw the waves?

Offline sabrina

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #143 on: June 08, 2010, 11:31:00 am »
@ sabrina,
nopz u did it wrong way,
it shuld b lik if for 6*10^23 atoms,u hav 10.7cm^3 vol
so for 1 atom,it shuld b x cm^3 vol..i.e
6*10^23=10.7
1=x
and thn u can get ur ans by cross multipling n for separation,whnver v r givn the vol,v take the cube root of it so it would b (1.78 x 10^-23)1/3 =2.61 x10^-8
hope it helped :)

cn u plz luk at ma ques???
thanks a lot now i got it

Offline halosh92

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #144 on: June 08, 2010, 11:33:23 am »
m/j 2007
2 d

this is sort of like the projectile
now the electron is exactly in the middle of the plates initally , vertical distance= 1.5cm
so if it has to travel upwards it will travel 1.5/2
right?
which is 0.75 cm basically so....
horizontal velocity is given in the question BUT vertical velocity in projectile cases ( why projectile? because its travelling in a curved path towards the upper plate) the vertical velocity is = 0
so s=ut + 1/2at^2
u=0 as i mentioned
s= 1/2 * (ure "a" value) *( ure "t" value) ^2
u will get an answer which is less than 0.75cm so obviouslly it will hit the plate
got it?
remember to change cms to ms
everyday we wake up is a miracle, then how do we say miracles dont happen?????

Offline halosh92

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #145 on: June 08, 2010, 11:38:56 am »
m/j 2006 p2 Q6b), why do we need to times 2 the wavelength, using v=f x lambda
and for part a) how to draw the waves?

ok the wavelength they gave is basically the length between one antinode and another successive antinode ok?
(two positions loud voice as they mentioned)
so...
if u draw the wave  u will first have an antonide then node then antinode the normal wave
so the distance from one antinode to the node is 32.4/2 ok?
always remember distance from node to node = half a wavelength
and wavelength from node to antinode= quarter a wavelength
so wat we found is quarter a wavelength now multiply by 4
got it?
everyday we wake up is a miracle, then how do we say miracles dont happen?????

Offline halosh92

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #146 on: June 08, 2010, 12:06:35 pm »
could someone briefly explain systematic and random errors????
everyday we wake up is a miracle, then how do we say miracles dont happen?????

Offline Chingoo

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #147 on: June 08, 2010, 12:10:33 pm »
ok the wavelength they gave is basically the length between one antinode and another successive antinode ok?
(two positions loud voice as they mentioned)
so...
if u draw the wave  u will first have an antonide then node then antinode the normal wave
so the distance from one antinode to the node is 32.4/2 ok?
always remember distance from node to node = half a wavelength
and wavelength from node to antinode= quarter a wavelength
so wat we found is quarter a wavelength now multiply by 4
got it?

I think you kinda lengthened the whole story...just to add my input (in case it helps), the distance between two consecutive nodes or two consecutive antinodes is lamda/2. See this maxima and minima as a waveform with displacement (y-axis) against distance (x-axis); the minima is the node and maxima the antinode. The antinode can be on either side of the x-axis, because if you remember displacement is taken from a reference point. In case of waves the reference point is the mean position (the node) and the maximum displacement from this mean position is an antinode. If the antinode is a point 2 cm from the mean position, the least displacement is NOT -2 but 0. Hence, like halosh said, simply multiply 32.4 by 2 and you have the lamda.

In times of a sine wave, a node and antinode are 90 degrees out of phase with each other (1/4 of the sine wave graph) and an antinode and another are (270-90=)180 degrees out of phase with each other (1.2 of the sine wave graph).
All that is on earth will perish:
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Offline halosh92

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #148 on: June 08, 2010, 12:12:07 pm »
I think you kinda lengthened the whole story...just to add my input (in case it helps), the distance between two consecutive nodes or two consecutive antinodes is lamda/2. See this maxima and minima as a waveform with displacement (y-axis) against distance (x-axis); the minima is the node and maxima the antinode. The antinode can be on either side of the x-axis, because if you remember displacement is taken from a reference point. In case of waves the reference point is the mean position (the node) and the maximum displacement from this mean position is an antinode. If the antinode is a point 2 cm from the mean position, the least displacement is NOT -2 but 0. Hence, like halosh said, simply multiply 32.4 by 2 and you have the lamda.

In times of a sine wave, a node and antinode are 90 degrees out of phase with each other (1/4 of the sine wave graph) and an antinode and another are (270-90=)180 degrees out of phase with each other (1.2 of the sine wave graph).


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everyday we wake up is a miracle, then how do we say miracles dont happen?????

Offline cashem'up

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Re: P.H.Y.S.I.C.S P2 D.O.U.B.T.S CIE
« Reply #149 on: June 08, 2010, 12:14:58 pm »
hey guys one question i had.... if i kept a filament in constant temperature lets say in Ice then would its IV graph be a straight line through origin