Okay, so I seem to be stuck on (b) [Refer to the attachment]. Would I use the equation "Phase angle = 2(pie)x/lambda"?
I don't know the DK's method, hopefully, he'll explain it to you.
This is what i do.
First find the amplitude of the second waveform.
We know that the intensity of the second wave is doulde the first,
So, 2I
1=I
2Intesity is proportional to amplitude
2I
1=K x 5
2 I
2= K x a
2K=I
1/5
2 K= I
2/a
2 now equate the two Ks
I
1/5
2 = I
2/a
2 using 2I
1=I
2, we say: 2= I
2/I
1 I
1/5
2 = I
2/a
2I
2/I
1 = a
2/25
2 = a
2/25
50 = a
2a = 7
Now draw the graph.
See I just know how to draw the graph. If the Wave has a hase difference of 180 degress, then it is completely out of phase,
If it is 90, then a 0.25 out of phase.
In other words. Look at the graph they gave you, 0.6 is one wavelength. So from 0 to O.6 is 360 degrees. so at 0.3, the phase angle of that point is 180 degrees. The new wave, when it starts from 0, will be in phase with the wave at this point.
So my wave looks like the one attached.